UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 9 March 2026

UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 9 March 2026 We will post 5 questions daily on static topics mentioned in the UPSC civil services preliminary examination syllabus. Each week will focus on a specific topic from the syllabus, such as History of India and Indian National Movement, Indian and World Geography, and more. We are excited to bring you our daily UPSC Static Quiz, designed to help you prepare for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination. Each day, we will post 5 questions on static topics mentioned in the UPSC syllabus. This week, we are focusing on Indian and World Geography.

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• Not categorized 0% • Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements. Statement I: The Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to unilaterally alter the area, boundaries, or name of any State without the consent of the State Legislature. Statement II: India is described as an “Indestructible Union of Destructible States.” Which one of the following is correct in respect of the following statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A **Statement I is Correct:**Under Article 3, the Parliament can form new states or alter areas/boundaries/names of existing states by a simple majority. The President must refer the bill to the State Legislature for its views, but these views are not binding on the Parliament. The Parliament can proceed even if the State Legislature rejects the proposal. Thus, the consent is not required, only the “reference” is procedural. **Statement II is Correct:**This phrase is the standard constitutional description of the Indian Federation (in contrast to the USA, which is an “Indestructible Union of Indestructible States”). In India, the Union is permanent, but the states are not; their territorial integrity is not guaranteed by the Constitution. Statement II explains Statement I. Incorrect Solution: A **Statement I is Correct:**Under Article 3, the Parliament can form new states or alter areas/boundaries/names of existing states by a simple majority. The President must refer the bill to the State Legislature for its views, but these views are not binding on the Parliament. The Parliament can proceed even if the State Legislature rejects the proposal. Thus, the consent is not required, only the “reference” is procedural. **Statement II is Correct:**This phrase is the standard constitutional description of the Indian Federation (in contrast to the USA, which is an “Indestructible Union of Indestructible States”). In India, the Union is permanent, but the states are not; their territorial integrity is not guaranteed by the Constitution. Statement II explains Statement I.

1. Question

Consider the following statements.

Statement I: The Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to unilaterally alter the area, boundaries, or name of any State without the consent of the State Legislature.

Statement II: India is described as an “Indestructible Union of Destructible States.”

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the following statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I • (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I • (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect • (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Solution: A

• **Statement I is Correct:**Under Article 3, the Parliament can form new states or alter areas/boundaries/names of existing states by a simple majority. The President must refer the bill to the State Legislature for its views, but these views are not binding on the Parliament. The Parliament can proceed even if the State Legislature rejects the proposal. Thus, the consent is not required, only the “reference” is procedural. • **Statement II is Correct:**This phrase is the standard constitutional description of the Indian Federation (in contrast to the USA, which is an “Indestructible Union of Indestructible States”). In India, the Union is permanent, but the states are not; their territorial integrity is not guaranteed by the Constitution. • Statement II explains Statement I. Solution: A

• **Statement I is Correct:**Under Article 3, the Parliament can form new states or alter areas/boundaries/names of existing states by a simple majority. The President must refer the bill to the State Legislature for its views, but these views are not binding on the Parliament. The Parliament can proceed even if the State Legislature rejects the proposal. Thus, the consent is not required, only the “reference” is procedural. • **Statement II is Correct:**This phrase is the standard constitutional description of the Indian Federation (in contrast to the USA, which is an “Indestructible Union of Indestructible States”). In India, the Union is permanent, but the states are not; their territorial integrity is not guaranteed by the Constitution. • Statement II explains Statement I. • Question 2 of 5 2. Question With reference to the power of Parliament to reorganize states under Article 3 of the Constitution, consider the following statements: A Bill for this purpose can be introduced in the Parliament only on the prior recommendation of the President. The President must refer the Bill to the State Legislature concerned for expressing its views within a specified period. The Parliament is bound to accept the views of the State Legislature if the resolution is passed by a special majority in the State Assembly. The power to cede Indian territory to a foreign state is covered under Article 3. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct: Article 3 requires the prior recommendation of the President for introducing a bill regarding the formation of new states or alteration of boundaries. Statement 2 is correct: The President must refer the bill to the concerned State Legislature to express its views within a specified time. This is a procedural safeguard, though a weak one. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Parliament is not bound by the views of the State Legislature, even if they oppose the bill unanimously or by special majority. The Parliament can accept or reject the views and proceed with the legislation (e.g., the formation of Telangana despite the AP Assembly’s opposition). Statement 4 is incorrect: In the Berubari Union case (1960), the Supreme Court held that the power to cede territory to a foreign state is not covered under Article 3. Article 3 deals with internal readjustment. Cession of territory involves a diminution of the area of the Union and requires a Constitutional Amendment under Article 368. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct: Article 3 requires the prior recommendation of the President for introducing a bill regarding the formation of new states or alteration of boundaries. Statement 2 is correct: The President must refer the bill to the concerned State Legislature to express its views within a specified time. This is a procedural safeguard, though a weak one. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Parliament is not bound by the views of the State Legislature, even if they oppose the bill unanimously or by special majority. The Parliament can accept or reject the views and proceed with the legislation (e.g., the formation of Telangana despite the AP Assembly’s opposition). Statement 4 is incorrect: In the Berubari Union case (1960), the Supreme Court held that the power to cede territory to a foreign state is not covered under Article 3. Article 3 deals with internal readjustment. Cession of territory involves a diminution of the area of the Union and requires a Constitutional Amendment under Article 368.

2. Question

With reference to the power of Parliament to reorganize states under Article 3 of the Constitution, consider the following statements:

• A Bill for this purpose can be introduced in the Parliament only on the prior recommendation of the President. • The President must refer the Bill to the State Legislature concerned for expressing its views within a specified period. • The Parliament is bound to accept the views of the State Legislature if the resolution is passed by a special majority in the State Assembly. • The power to cede Indian territory to a foreign state is covered under Article 3. Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only • (b) 1, 2 and 4 only • (c) 2 and 3 only • (d) 1, 2 and 3 Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct: Article 3 requires the prior recommendation of the President for introducing a bill regarding the formation of new states or alteration of boundaries. • Statement 2 is correct: The President must refer the bill to the concerned State Legislature to express its views within a specified time. This is a procedural safeguard, though a weak one. • Statement 3 is incorrect: The Parliament is not bound by the views of the State Legislature, even if they oppose the bill unanimously or by special majority. The Parliament can accept or reject the views and proceed with the legislation (e.g., the formation of Telangana despite the AP Assembly’s opposition). • Statement 4 is incorrect: In the Berubari Union case (1960), the Supreme Court held that the power to cede territory to a foreign state is not covered under Article 3. Article 3 deals with internal readjustment. Cession of territory involves a diminution of the area of the Union and requires a Constitutional Amendment under Article 368. Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct: Article 3 requires the prior recommendation of the President for introducing a bill regarding the formation of new states or alteration of boundaries. • Statement 2 is correct: The President must refer the bill to the concerned State Legislature to express its views within a specified time. This is a procedural safeguard, though a weak one. • Statement 3 is incorrect: The Parliament is not bound by the views of the State Legislature, even if they oppose the bill unanimously or by special majority. The Parliament can accept or reject the views and proceed with the legislation (e.g., the formation of Telangana despite the AP Assembly’s opposition). • Statement 4 is incorrect: In the Berubari Union case (1960), the Supreme Court held that the power to cede territory to a foreign state is not covered under Article 3. Article 3 deals with internal readjustment. Cession of territory involves a diminution of the area of the Union and requires a Constitutional Amendment under Article 368. • Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Union of India’ vs ‘Territory of India’: The ‘Union of India’ includes only the States. The ‘Territory of India’ includes States, Union Territories, and territories that may be acquired in the future. The Fifth and Sixth Schedules apply to the administration of acquired territories until they are constituted into States. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct: The expression “Union of India” is narrower than “Territory of India.” The Union of India includes only the States (which share federal power). Statement 2 is correct: Article 1(3) defines the “Territory of India” to comprise: (a) The territories of the States, (b) The Union Territories specified in the First Schedule, and (c) Such other territories as may be acquired. Statement 3 is incorrect: Acquired territories are directly administered by the Central Government (like UTs). The Fifth Schedule applies to Scheduled Areas in states (other than the four NE states), and the Sixth Schedule applies to Tribal Areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. There is no automatic application of these schedules to newly acquired foreign territory; Parliament must legislate their administrative structure (as seen with Pondicherry or Goa initially). Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct: The expression “Union of India” is narrower than “Territory of India.” The Union of India includes only the States (which share federal power). Statement 2 is correct: Article 1(3) defines the “Territory of India” to comprise: (a) The territories of the States, (b) The Union Territories specified in the First Schedule, and (c) Such other territories as may be acquired. Statement 3 is incorrect: Acquired territories are directly administered by the Central Government (like UTs). The Fifth Schedule applies to Scheduled Areas in states (other than the four NE states), and the Sixth Schedule applies to Tribal Areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. There is no automatic application of these schedules to newly acquired foreign territory; Parliament must legislate their administrative structure (as seen with Pondicherry or Goa initially).

3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Union of India’ vs ‘Territory of India’:

• The ‘Union of India’ includes only the States. • The ‘Territory of India’ includes States, Union Territories, and territories that may be acquired in the future. • The Fifth and Sixth Schedules apply to the administration of acquired territories until they are constituted into States. How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one • (b) Only two • (c) All three Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct: The expression “Union of India” is narrower than “Territory of India.” The Union of India includes only the States (which share federal power). • Statement 2 is correct: Article 1(3) defines the “Territory of India” to comprise: (a) The territories of the States, (b) The Union Territories specified in the First Schedule, and (c) Such other territories as may be acquired. • Statement 3 is incorrect: Acquired territories are directly administered by the Central Government (like UTs). The Fifth Schedule applies to Scheduled Areas in states (other than the four NE states), and the Sixth Schedule applies to Tribal Areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. There is no automatic application of these schedules to newly acquired foreign territory; Parliament must legislate their administrative structure (as seen with Pondicherry or Goa initially). Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct: The expression “Union of India” is narrower than “Territory of India.” The Union of India includes only the States (which share federal power). • Statement 2 is correct: Article 1(3) defines the “Territory of India” to comprise: (a) The territories of the States, (b) The Union Territories specified in the First Schedule, and (c) Such other territories as may be acquired. • Statement 3 is incorrect: Acquired territories are directly administered by the Central Government (like UTs). The Fifth Schedule applies to Scheduled Areas in states (other than the four NE states), and the Sixth Schedule applies to Tribal Areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. There is no automatic application of these schedules to newly acquired foreign territory; Parliament must legislate their administrative structure (as seen with Pondicherry or Goa initially). • Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements regarding the loss of Indian Citizenship under the Citizenship Act, 1955: Renunciation: If a person renounces his Indian citizenship, every minor child of that person also loses Indian citizenship. Termination: The citizenship of an Indian citizen automatically terminates if he voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country, even during a war in which India is engaged. Deprivation: The Central Government can deprive a citizen of his citizenship if he has shown himself by act or speech to be disloyal to the Constitution of India. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct: Section 8 of the Citizenship Act, 1955 states that when a person renounces their citizenship, every minor child of that person ceases to be an Indian citizen. However, such a child may resume Indian citizenship by making a declaration within one year of attaining full age (18 years). Statement 2 is incorrect: Section 9 deals with Termination. While it is true that voluntary acquisition of foreign citizenship leads to automatic termination, there is an exception: This provision does not apply during a war in which India is engaged. In such cases, the Central Government has the discretion to withhold the termination. Statement 3 is correct: Section 10 deals with Deprivation (compulsory termination). It applies to citizens by naturalization/registration (not birth). Grounds include obtaining citizenship by fraud, showing disloyalty to the Constitution, trading with the enemy during war, or being imprisoned for 2 years within 5 years of registration. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct: Section 8 of the Citizenship Act, 1955 states that when a person renounces their citizenship, every minor child of that person ceases to be an Indian citizen. However, such a child may resume Indian citizenship by making a declaration within one year of attaining full age (18 years). Statement 2 is incorrect: Section 9 deals with Termination. While it is true that voluntary acquisition of foreign citizenship leads to automatic termination, there is an exception: This provision does not apply during a war in which India is engaged. In such cases, the Central Government has the discretion to withhold the termination. Statement 3 is correct: Section 10 deals with Deprivation (compulsory termination). It applies to citizens by naturalization/registration (not birth). Grounds include obtaining citizenship by fraud, showing disloyalty to the Constitution, trading with the enemy during war, or being imprisoned for 2 years within 5 years of registration.

4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the loss of Indian Citizenship under the Citizenship Act, 1955:

• Renunciation: If a person renounces his Indian citizenship, every minor child of that person also loses Indian citizenship. • Termination: The citizenship of an Indian citizen automatically terminates if he voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country, even during a war in which India is engaged. • Deprivation: The Central Government can deprive a citizen of his citizenship if he has shown himself by act or speech to be disloyal to the Constitution of India. How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one • (b) Only two • (c) All three Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct: Section 8 of the Citizenship Act, 1955 states that when a person renounces their citizenship, every minor child of that person ceases to be an Indian citizen. However, such a child may resume Indian citizenship by making a declaration within one year of attaining full age (18 years). • Statement 2 is incorrect: Section 9 deals with Termination. While it is true that voluntary acquisition of foreign citizenship leads to automatic termination, there is an exception: This provision does not apply during a war in which India is engaged. In such cases, the Central Government has the discretion to withhold the termination. • Statement 3 is correct: Section 10 deals with Deprivation (compulsory termination). It applies to citizens by naturalization/registration (not birth). Grounds include obtaining citizenship by fraud, showing disloyalty to the Constitution, trading with the enemy during war, or being imprisoned for 2 years within 5 years of registration. Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct: Section 8 of the Citizenship Act, 1955 states that when a person renounces their citizenship, every minor child of that person ceases to be an Indian citizen. However, such a child may resume Indian citizenship by making a declaration within one year of attaining full age (18 years). • Statement 2 is incorrect: Section 9 deals with Termination. While it is true that voluntary acquisition of foreign citizenship leads to automatic termination, there is an exception: This provision does not apply during a war in which India is engaged. In such cases, the Central Government has the discretion to withhold the termination. • Statement 3 is correct: Section 10 deals with Deprivation (compulsory termination). It applies to citizens by naturalization/registration (not birth). Grounds include obtaining citizenship by fraud, showing disloyalty to the Constitution, trading with the enemy during war, or being imprisoned for 2 years within 5 years of registration. • Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements regarding the instruments of direct democracy in the Indian context: The Indian Constitution expressly provides for the ‘Recall’ of elected representatives of the Lok Sabha under the Representation of the People Act, 1951. The Gram Sabha, as defined in Article 243(b), is an elected body comprising representatives from each ward of the village. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect: There is no provision for the ‘Recall’ of Members of Parliament (Lok Sabha) or State Legislative Assemblies in the Constitution of India or the Representation of the People Act, 1951. While the debate for recall exists, it has not been codified for higher legislative bodies. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Gram Sabha is not an elected body. According to Article 243(b) of the Constitution and relevant state acts, the Gram Sabha is a body consisting of all persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village comprised within the area of the Panchayat. It is a permanent body of the electorate itself, embodying direct democracy, unlike the Gram Panchayat, which is the elected executive body. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect: There is no provision for the ‘Recall’ of Members of Parliament (Lok Sabha) or State Legislative Assemblies in the Constitution of India or the Representation of the People Act, 1951. While the debate for recall exists, it has not been codified for higher legislative bodies. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Gram Sabha is not an elected body. According to Article 243(b) of the Constitution and relevant state acts, the Gram Sabha is a body consisting of all persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village comprised within the area of the Panchayat. It is a permanent body of the electorate itself, embodying direct democracy, unlike the Gram Panchayat, which is the elected executive body.

5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the instruments of direct democracy in the Indian context:

• The Indian Constitution expressly provides for the ‘Recall’ of elected representatives of the Lok Sabha under the Representation of the People Act, 1951. • The Gram Sabha, as defined in Article 243(b), is an elected body comprising representatives from each ward of the village. Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 only • (b) 2 only • (c) Both 1 and 2 • (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect: There is no provision for the ‘Recall’ of Members of Parliament (Lok Sabha) or State Legislative Assemblies in the Constitution of India or the Representation of the People Act, 1951. While the debate for recall exists, it has not been codified for higher legislative bodies. • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Gram Sabha is not an elected body. According to Article 243(b) of the Constitution and relevant state acts, the Gram Sabha is a body consisting of all persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village comprised within the area of the Panchayat. It is a permanent body of the electorate itself, embodying direct democracy, unlike the Gram Panchayat, which is the elected executive body. Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect: There is no provision for the ‘Recall’ of Members of Parliament (Lok Sabha) or State Legislative Assemblies in the Constitution of India or the Representation of the People Act, 1951. While the debate for recall exists, it has not been codified for higher legislative bodies. • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Gram Sabha is not an elected body. According to Article 243(b) of the Constitution and relevant state acts, the Gram Sabha is a body consisting of all persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village comprised within the area of the Panchayat. It is a permanent body of the electorate itself, embodying direct democracy, unlike the Gram Panchayat, which is the elected executive body. Join our Official Telegram Channel HERE for Motivation and Fast Updates

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